Cambridge IGCSE 0500 Exam Format 2027–29: Every Question and Mark
Paper 1, Paper 2, coursework, word counts and every important change explained.
This guide applies to examinations taken in 2027, 2028 and 2029.
Sitting the examination in 2026? Do not use this structure. You are still following the 2024–26 syllabus. Also, if you are currently following the 2024 to 2026 syllabus, the exams in October are your final exams. Good luck with them!
Welcome back, all!
A syllabus change is a little like somebody moving the furniture in a familiar room.
The furniture itself is still recognisable. Summary writing is still summary writing. Writer’s Effect is still Writer’s Effect. Extended Response to Reading has not mysteriously vanished.
But if you attempt to navigate using the old map, you may walk into things.
From 2027, Cambridge IGCSE First Language English 0500 retains its familiar two-hour, 80-mark papers. However, several questions have moved, some mark allocations have changed and Paper 1 now has a noticeably tidier structure.
Four questions. Twenty marks each.
Simple?
Well… broadly. But those four sets of 20 marks do not all assess the same skills. Let’s look at exactly where every mark lives.
The 30-second answer
Every candidate takes Paper 1 and either Paper 2 or Component 3 Coursework.
| Component | Duration | Marks | Weighting |
|---|---|---|---|
| Paper 1: Reading | 2 hours | 80 | 50% |
| Paper 2: Directed Writing and Composition | 2 hours | 80 | 50% |
| Component 3: Coursework Portfolio | Completed during the course | 80 | 50% |
| Component 4: Speaking and Listening | Approximately 10–12 minutes | 40 | Separately endorsed |
Component 3 is an alternative to Paper 2. Component 4 is optional and does not contribute to the main A*–G grade.
Across the Paper 1 and Paper 2 route, there are exactly:
- 80 Reading marks
- 80 Writing marks
Paper 1 carries 65 Reading marks and 15 Writing marks. Paper 2 reverses the balance, carrying 15 Reading marks and 65 Writing marks.
The overall qualification is therefore more balanced than either individual paper might initially suggest.
The full structure is confirmed in Cambridge’s official 2027–29 syllabus.
Paper 1: Reading
Duration: 2 hours
Total: 80 marks
Weighting: 50%
Texts: Three texts, totalling approximately 1400 words
Questions: Four compulsory questions worth 20 marks each
Dictionary: Not permitted
Cambridge recommends spending approximately 15 minutes reading. It does not prescribe a fixed amount of time for each question.
The equal 20-mark structure makes 30 minutes per question an appealing starting point, but remember that equal marks do not necessarily mean equal reading or writing time. Test your timing under examination conditions before deciding what works for you.
Paper 1 at a glance
| Task | Source | Marks | Word guidance |
| Question 1: Comprehension | Text A | 20 Reading | No set length |
| Question 2(a): Summary | Text B | 10 Reading + 5 Writing | No more than 120 words |
| Question 2(b): Attitude or opinion | Text B | 5 Reading | No set length |
| Question 3: Short answers | Text C | 10 Reading | Varies |
| Question 3: Language analysis | Text C | 10 Reading | About 200–250 words |
| Question 4: Extended Response | Text C | 10 Reading + 10 Writing | About 250–300 words |
Question 1: Comprehension — 20 marks
Question 1 consists of several structured comprehension questions based on Text A.
This is not simply a collection of fact-retrieval questions. Cambridge states that Question 1 can test all five Reading assessment objectives, including:
- Explicit meaning
- Implicit meaning and attitudes
- Analysis and evaluation
- How writers create effects
- Selection of information for a particular purpose
The exact number and arrangement of sub-questions may vary. However, the official 2027 specimen Paper 1 uses this structure:
| Specimen question | What the candidate does | Marks |
| 1(a) | Retrieves one specific detail | 1 |
| 1(b)(i) | Explains a phrase in their own words | 2 |
| 1(b)(ii) | Explains another phrase in their own words | 2 |
| 1(c) | Gives two explicit details | 2 |
| 1(d) | Identifies two implied reasons | 2 |
| 1(e)(i) | Explains an evidence-based conclusion | 3 |
| 1(e)(ii) | Explains why that conclusion later changed | 3 |
| 1(f)(i) | Explains the effect of one word choice | 2 |
| 1(f)(ii) | Explains what a figurative phrase suggests | 3 |
| Total | 20 |
This table shows the specimen-paper pattern—not a guarantee that every live paper will use precisely the same subparts.
Here’s the danger: because Question 1 is called “comprehension”, students may assume that every answer can simply be lifted from the text.
It cannot.
Some questions require selection. Some require your own words. Others ask you to explain implications or analyse why the writer chose one expression rather than another.
Read the command word carefully.
Question 2: Summary and attitude — 20 marks
Question 2 is based on Text B and contains two distinct tasks.
Question 2(a): Selective summary — 15 marks
The summary is worth:
- 10 Reading marks
- 5 Writing marks
Candidates must:
- Select ideas relevant to the precise summary focus
- Write in continuous prose rather than note form
- Use their own words as far as possible
- Remain within 120 words
The summary has not disappeared. It has moved from Question 1(f) in the old format to Question 2(a).
The Reading marks reward understanding, focus and intelligent selection. The Writing marks reward clarity, organisation and concision.
Notice that this is not a miniature essay. You do not need a grand introduction, a rhetorical opening or a concluding flourish. Every word must earn its place.
The core summary skills remain the same, so you can still use How to Write a Summary Well. Just remember that older resources may display the previous question number.
Question 2(b): Attitude or opinion response — 5 marks
This is a new, separate five-mark question.
Candidates respond to an aspect of the writer’s attitude or opinion and support their answer using details from Text B.
In the specimen paper, candidates are asked to assess the writer’s attitude and use three textual details. The exact wording may vary, but the underlying task involves:
- Recognising the writer’s position
- Explaining how that position is conveyed
- Supporting the interpretation with relevant evidence
There is no stated word count.
Do not treat this as another summary. You are not simply collecting what the writer says; you are explaining what the writer appears to think or feel.
The skill overlaps with evaluation in IGCSE First Language English, although you should use the 2027 specimen paper for the new task structure.
Question 3: Short answers and language analysis — 20 marks
Question 3 is based on Text C.
It contains:
- 10 marks of short-answer work
- 10 marks for the main language-analysis task
The short-answer section — 10 marks
In the specimen paper, the first 10 marks are distributed as follows:
| Specimen question | What the candidate does | Marks |
| 3(a)(i) | Finds a word or phrase matching a stated idea | 1 |
| 3(a)(ii) | Finds another matching word or phrase | 1 |
| 3(b)(i)–(iii) | Explains three words in their own words | 3 |
| 3(c) | Selects one example and explains its language effect | 5 |
| Subtotal | 10 |
Question 3(c) acts as a useful bridge: instead of analysing several choices, you explain one example carefully and precisely.
Again, Cambridge fixes the overall task types and the 10-plus-10 division. The exact specimen subparts should not be treated as a promise about every future paper.
The main language task — 10 marks
The larger language-analysis response is worth 10 Reading marks.
Candidates write approximately 200–250 words.
In the specimen, candidates choose three powerful words or phrases from one extract and analyse how the writer uses them. Future questions may vary in wording, so always follow the live paper’s instructions.
A strong response should:
- Select precise and productive words or phrases
- Explain their meaning in context
- Explore associations, connotations and imagery
- Explain why the writer’s particular choice is effective
- Connect the language to the wider portrayal or atmosphere
Simply identifying a metaphor is not analysis.
Neither is saying that a phrase “makes the reader want to read on”.
The familiar Writer’s Effect skill remains. Its new home is Question 3 rather than the old Question 2(d), and the main task is now worth 10 marks rather than 15.
You can revisit the underlying analytical method in Writer’s Effect: A Deep Dive into the Marking Criteria, while using the new specimen paper for the current structure and mark allocation.
Question 4: Extended Response to Reading — 20 marks
Question 4 is also based on Text C.
Candidates write approximately 250–300 words.
The 20 marks are divided equally:
- 10 Reading marks
- 10 Writing marks
Candidates may be asked to write a:
- Letter
- Report
- Journal
- Speech
- Interview
- Article
The task requires candidates to adopt a specified role, viewpoint, audience and purpose while selecting and developing ideas from Text C.
The Reading marks reward:
- Understanding of explicit and implicit ideas
- Selection of relevant material
- Analysis, evaluation and development
- Supporting detail from the text
- Coverage of every part of the task
The Writing marks reward:
- Effective style
- Deliberate organisation
- Precise vocabulary
- An appropriate and convincing voice
- Language suited to audience and purpose
In the specimen, Question 4 is presented as an interview consisting of three questions. That is one possible scenario—not a prediction of what future papers will contain.
This task used to be Question 3 and was worth 25 marks. From 2027, it becomes Question 4, worth 20 marks, with a shorter suggested response length.
For a reminder of how the possible forms differ, see the complete breakdown of 0500 text types.
Paper 2: Directed Writing and Composition
Duration: 2 hours
Total: 80 marks
Weighting: 50%
Answers required: Question 1 and one composition
Dictionary: Not permitted
Paper 2 still contains two 40-mark sections. However, Section A now begins with a new five-mark reading question.
Paper 2 at a glance
| Task | Marks | Word guidance |
| Question 1(a): Structured reading response | 5 Reading | No set length |
| Question 1(b): Directed Writing | 10 Reading + 25 Writing | About 250–350 words |
| One composition from Questions 2–5 | 40 Writing | About 350–450 words |
Section A: Directed Writing — 40 marks
The task is based on one or two texts totalling 550–650 words. This has been reduced from 650–750 words in the previous format.
Question 1(a): Structured reading response — 5 marks
Question 1(a) is new.
It is a short, separate task requiring candidates to analyse, evaluate and demonstrate their understanding of the source material.
In the specimen, candidates evaluate a person’s attitude to work using their own words and supporting details from an extract.
This is not merely planning space for Question 1(b). It is an assessed response worth five Reading marks.
To reach the highest level, candidates need to demonstrate a clear understanding of the attitude or idea being examined and support that interpretation with relevant textual detail.
Question 1(b): Directed Writing — 35 marks
Question 1(b) is the main Directed Writing response.
It is worth:
- 10 Reading marks
- 25 Writing marks
Candidates write approximately 250–350 words.
They use, develop and evaluate ideas from the supplied text or texts to produce a discursive, argumentative or persuasive:
- Speech
- Letter
- Article
- Report
The addition of the report is worth noticing. Under the preceding syllabus, the listed Paper 2 forms were speech, letter and article.
The Reading marks reward the range, development and integration of source ideas. The Writing marks reward style, structure, vocabulary, audience awareness and accuracy.
A high-level response does not march mechanically through Text A and then Text B. It reorganises and synthesises ideas to create a convincing independent response.
In other words, the sources provide your material—but they should not dictate your paragraph order.
Section B: Composition — 40 marks
Candidates choose one of four titles:
- Question 2: descriptive writing
- Question 3: descriptive writing
- Question 4: narrative writing
- Question 5: narrative writing
You answer one of them.
The suggested length is approximately 350–450 words.
Every composition is marked using the same division:
- 16 marks for Content and Structure
- 24 marks for Style and Accuracy
That means 60 per cent of the composition marks are attached to style and accuracy.
For descriptive writing, the highest levels reward:
- A convincing overall picture
- Carefully developed images and details
- Close observation
- Varied focus
- Deliberate structure
- Effective figurative language
For narrative writing, they reward:
- A developed and engaging plot
- Convincing detail
- Characterisation
- Description
- Structural control
- An effective climax
For both forms, vocabulary, sentence control, spelling, punctuation and grammar matter enormously.
The composition section has not been substantially restructured for 2027. The four choices, 40 marks, 350–450-word guidance and 16/24 division remain.
If composition is your weaker area, revisit Should You Plan Your Essays?, alongside the narrative composition bank and descriptive writing guide.
What changed from the 2024–26 format?
Here is the simplest side-by-side comparison:
| Area | 2024–26 | 2027–29 |
| Paper 1 structure | Three numbered questions: 30, 25 and 25 marks | Four questions worth 20 marks each |
| Text A comprehension | 15 marks | 20 marks |
| Summary | Question 1(f), 15 marks | Question 2(a), 15 marks |
| Separate attitude task | None | New Question 2(b), 5 marks |
| Main language analysis | Question 2(d), 15 marks, about 200–300 words | Question 3, 10 marks, about 200–250 words |
| Extended Response | Question 3, 25 marks, about 250–350 words | Question 4, 20 marks, about 250–300 words |
| Paper 2 source material | 650–750 words | 550–650 words |
| Directed Writing | One 40-mark response | Question 1(a), 5 marks; Question 1(b), 35 marks |
| Paper 2 forms | Speech, letter or article | Speech, letter, article or report |
| Composition | 40 marks | Structurally unchanged |
| Marking criteria | 2024–26 criteria | Updated criteria |
Cambridge explains that the wording of the assessment objectives has changed, but the knowledge and skills being assessed have not.
This is why older papers are not useless. The skills remain highly transferable. However, older papers no longer provide an accurate simulation of the question order, mark allocation or suggested response lengths.
The word counts: which one is actually a maximum?
This distinction matters.
| Task | Cambridge’s wording |
| Paper 1 Question 2(a), summary | No more than 120 words |
| Paper 1 language analysis | About 200–250 words |
| Paper 1 Extended Response | About 250–300 words |
| Paper 2 Directed Writing | About 250–350 words |
| Paper 2 composition | About 350–450 words |
The summary has an explicit maximum.
The other figures are guidance. Cambridge does not apply an automatic fixed penalty simply because a response is slightly above or below a suggested length. However, an extremely short response may lack development, while an excessively long response may lose focus, waste time or accumulate errors.
The safest approach? Treat 120 words as the operational maximum for the summary and use the other ranges as sensible targets.
Cambridge explains its approach further in its official word-count guidance.
Does every candidate take Paper 2?
No.
Every candidate takes Paper 1 and then takes either:
- Paper 2, or
- Component 3 Coursework
Component 3: Coursework Portfolio
The coursework portfolio contains three assignments of approximately 500–800 words each:
| Assignment | Task | Marks |
| Assignment 1 | Discuss, argue or persuade in response to one or more texts | 15 Reading + 15 Writing |
| Assignment 2 | Descriptive writing | 25 Writing |
| Assignment 3 | Narrative writing | 25 Writing |
| Total | 80 |
The portfolio is internally assessed and externally moderated.
Component 4: Speaking and Listening
Component 4 is optional and separately endorsed. Its marks do not affect the main 0500 grade.
It consists of:
- An Individual Talk of approximately 3–4 minutes—20 marks
- A Conversation of approximately 7–8 minutes—20 marks
The full test therefore lasts approximately 10–12 minutes.
Can I still use pre-2027 past papers?
Yes—but use them intelligently.
Older papers remain useful for isolated practice in:
- Summary writing
- Language analysis
- Extended Response to Reading
- Directed Writing
- Descriptive composition
- Narrative composition
They should not be used as exact 2027-format mock examinations.
For a full timed simulation, use the official 2027 specimen papers. For targeted practice, older tasks can still be extremely valuable.
The key is to separate skill practice from format practice.
Frequently asked questions
When does the new 0500 format begin?
It begins with examinations taken in 2027 and remains in place for 2028 and 2029.
Candidates sitting in 2026 must use the 2024–26 format.
How many questions are on Paper 1?
There are four compulsory questions, each worth 20 marks.
Is the summary still assessed?
Yes. It is now Question 2(a), worth 15 marks, with a maximum of 120 words.
Is Writer’s Effect still assessed?
Yes. The main language-analysis task now appears in Question 3 and is worth 10 marks. The suggested length is approximately 200–250 words.
What is the new Paper 2 Question 1(a)?
It is a separate five-mark reading question requiring analysis, evaluation and supported understanding of the source material.
How are the composition marks divided?
There are 16 marks for Content and Structure and 24 marks for Style and Accuracy.
Are dictionaries permitted?
No. Dictionaries are not permitted in Paper 1 or Paper 2.
Does the specimen predict the real examination topics?
No. The specimen demonstrates the structure, wording style and marking approach. Its subject matter is not a prediction.
What should I do next?
Knowing the map matters. But knowing where the marks are located is not the same as knowing how to earn them.
A sensible next step is:
- Read the relevant question.
- Study one strong worked response.
- Attempt a parallel task yourself.
- Mark it or obtain feedback.
- Rewrite the weakest part.
- Attempt another task to test whether the improvement transferred.
If you would like complete model-response banks and a more structured feedback loop, you can explore EnglishFirstLanguage.net Premium membership and learn about the IGCSE Essay Marker.
The new format is different. It is not, however, an entirely new language.
The same fundamental abilities remain: read precisely, infer intelligently, analyse language, develop ideas and write with control.
Now you know where every mark lives.
The next step is learning what a strong response does with those marks.
All the best!
V.
